For Adam Was First Formed, Then Eve"
Paul must have had a reason for that statement. What is it? Why would he ever refer to the order in which man and woman were created? Why would he say "And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression," I Tim. 2:13-14. The reason is this: there is something a woman cannot have, that man, when viewed from the opposite standpoint, does have over the woman. That statement can be summarized thusly: there are certain aspects of their status that are not equal. For proof of this reason I offer, not only the scripture under consideration (I Tim. 2:11-14), but also I Cor. 11:3 where Paul says, "But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God."
In analyzing the statement, the next question is, "Why would Paul make an argument based upon the order of creation and who was deceived?" The reason is that the role of woman, both in teaching and learning, is restricted.
I Tim. 2:11-14 is not confined to the assembly of the saints; it is much more inclusive than that. Even though it is not a regulation of the man-woman relationship in business, politics, society, etc.; I believe the principles are applicable in these areas. The Lord never intended for woman to exercise control over the man anytime, anywhere. If people of the world, and Christians, would recognize this, the affairs of this country would be much better. This material is a restriction to every woman who sustains a spiritual relationship to Christ so that her conduct in teaching and learning -- I am not considering marriage in this study -- must be governed by her recognition of subjection, not only to Christ, but also to man.
"Let the woman learn in silence... ", I Tim. 2:11 a. The word "hesukia which is translated "silence" does not suggest absolute speechlessness but rather "quietness" or "tranquility." W. E. Vine says, "HESUCHIA, akin to A, No 2, and B. No.1, denotes quietness, 2 Thess. 3:12; it is so translated in the R. V. of I Tim. 2:11,12 (A. V. , 'silence'); in Acts 22: 2, R. V. , '(they were the more) quiet,' A. V. ,' (they kept the more) silence,' lit. , 'they kept quietness the more.", p.242.
...with all subjection," v. 11b further modifies her learning. "Upotage" (subjection) is used also in I Tim. 3:4 of the bishop having his children in subjection. This subjection of woman to man further strengthens I Cor. 11:3 in the way in which man is her head. No man has ever been commanded to learn in quietness or to be in subjection to woman.
"But I suffer (permit) not a woman to teach..." -- some people stop here and say, "A woman cannot teach at all!" If that position be true, it would plainly contradict Tit. 2:3 where the aged women are told to be "teachers of good things." A passage that is parallel in construction can be found in Acts 4:18, and this is an OLD argument but, nevertheless, a good one. Peter and John were told "not to speak at all nor teach in the name of Jesus." If the first part of the sentence, "not to speak at all," stands unqualified, then they were to be completely mute. The thing that Peter and John were being commanded not to do was to "speak at all in the name of Jesus nor to teach in the name of Jesus." So it is in I Tim. 2:12, that both teaching and usurping authority is over the man -- this a woman cannot do. She is commanded to teach, but cannot teach over the man.
"Usurp authority" is translated from "authentein" which is an infinitive. The word suggests the idea of "exercising authority" or exercising control" over the man. I do not believe that a woman, who is a Christian, is permitted to exercise control over the man in any area. Thayer gives the etymology of the word thusly: "acc. to earlier usage, one who with his own hand kills either others or himself... one who does a thing himself, the author... one who acts on his own authority, autocratic... to govern one, exercise dominion over one, I Tim. ii. 12." p.84.
It is also true in teaching as well as learning, that woman is to be in silence (quietness, inner tranquility, peaceableness, not causing disturbance). Therefore, in both learning and teaching, the role of woman is restricted. I have sat in some periods of Bible study in which the woman completely took over the class to direct and pursue the line of study while she was sitting down in the audience. A woman does not have to stand before the class to teach over the man and exercise authority over him. On the other hand, by her standing before the class which contains men, she has put herself in a place of teaching over him and exercising control over him -- she would be completely out of place!
A woman might very well be superior in intellect and, talent, but her PLACE is one of subjection to man. Else what does Paul mean by the argument, "Because Adam was first formed then Eve," and "Adam was not deceived but the woman being deceived was in transgression?" (Emphasis mine, JE).
-417 E. Groesbeck Lufkin, Texas